Re: Glenn wrote:

Glenn R. Morton (
Thu, 04 Jun 1998 20:02:24 -0500

At 12:42 PM 6/4/98 -0500, Ron Chitwood wrote:
>I do not have the problem you do with 'kol eretz'. In Genesis 7: 19-22 God
>has made it clear that the flood covered the whole earth, not just a
>locality. Therefore, the context of using 'all the earth' is correct.
>For the sake of brevity, I am going to use this one (of multitudes) example
>found in Gen. 18:25 "....shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?"
>Based on what you say, this limits God, not to the earth, but to a locality
>(land). The context indicates otherwise, however.

I will grant that Gen 18:25 is a universal usage of kol eretz. I will not
grant that Genesis 41:56,57 is a limited usage. Kol eretz is also used in
Genesis 2:11 as "all the land of havilah', 2:13 all the land of Ethiopia,
Genesis 19:28, 'all the land of the plain'

My point is that you can only associate kol eretz with the entire planet in
a disputed case by means of assumption. The phrase can be used either way.
So you should acknowledge that kol eretz can be used in a limited sense
and it can be used in a global sense. To claim that the only correct usage
is global goes beyond the observed usage of the phrase.

>In addressing the problems mentioned about the famine, I agree with your
>definition because of the context. 'All the countries' refers to
>localities, not the 'whole earth'. Its possible God meant the 'whole
>earth', but not probable. To use a NT reference, Luke 2:1 mentions "all
>the world should be taxed" but its understood that Luke meant only those
>under Roman jurisdiction, not the Olmecs of Mexico or the Mound Builders of
>North America.

So if all the world in the NT can be used locally and I have shown you that
all the land can be used locally in the OT, why must it, with out any
doubt, be global in usage in Genesis 6-9? I see no evidence here just

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