Re: Glenn wrote:

Ron Chitwood (
Thu, 4 Jun 1998 12:42:16 -0500

>>>>>Now the Hebrew is 'kol eretz', whole earth. Does this mean all of
earth or all of the land? Lets look at another occurrence of this term.

The famine in Egypt at the time of Joseph is the next case. Genesis
41:56-57 says,

56 And the famine was over all the face of the earth: And Joseph opened
all the storehouses, and sold unto the Egyptians; and the famine waxed sore
in the land of Egypt.
57 And all countries came into Egypt to Joseph for to buy corn; because
that the famine was so sore in all lands.<<<<<

I do not have the problem you do with 'kol eretz'. In Genesis 7: 19-22 God
has made it clear that the flood covered the whole earth, not just a
locality. Therefore, the context of using 'all the earth' is correct.

For the sake of brevity, I am going to use this one (of multitudes) example
found in Gen. 18:25 "....shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?"
Based on what you say, this limits God, not to the earth, but to a locality
(land). The context indicates otherwise, however.

In addressing the problems mentioned about the famine, I agree with your
definition because of the context. 'All the countries' refers to
localities, not the 'whole earth'. Its possible God meant the 'whole
earth', but not probable. To use a NT reference, Luke 2:1 mentions "all
the world should be taxed" but its understood that Luke meant only those
under Roman jurisdiction, not the Olmecs of Mexico or the Mound Builders of
North America.

Trust in the LORD with all your heart,
and do not rely on your own insight.. Pr. 3:5
Ron Chitwood