RE: [asa] Land Animals and the Flood

From: Christine Smith <>
Date: Fri Aug 24 2007 - 13:44:20 EDT

If memory serves, the story of the flood as presented
in the Bible is thought to be a merging of two
different accounts coming from within different
strands/traditions of Judiaism. Could this be then a
reflection of these two traditions--one which stated
that God was upset with mankind alone, and another
which stated that He was upset with both mankind and
land animals?


--- Jon Tandy <> wrote:

> Gordon,
> Interesting observation, the verb tense I think
> could be explained either
> way (plural referring to man and beast, or a change
> in tense to refer in the
> plural to mankind only). I would still stand by
> what I said earlier, along
> with the parallelism from a preceding verse ("it
> repented the Lord that he
> had made repenteth me that I have made
> them"), as well as a
> complete lack of any hint in the larger context that
> the Lord was displeased
> with either the animals or man's use of animals
> (e.g. idolatry). This isn't
> to say that people weren't worshipping idols in the
> form of animals, I just
> don't see any warrant in the text for the conclusion
> that the Lord was upset
> at having "made them" (the animals).
> Jon Tandy
> -----Original Message-----
> From:
> [] On
> Behalf Of gordon brown
> Sent: Friday, August 24, 2007 11:15 AM
> To: Jon Tandy
> Cc:
> Subject: RE: [asa] Land Animals and the Flood
> On Fri, 24 Aug 2007, Jon Tandy wrote:
> > You are assuming "them" at the end of the verse is
> referring to the
> > immediate antecedant, "man, beast, creaping thing,
> fowls." However,
> > in context this is written after Gen 6:1-7a has
> said:
> In the Hebrew of this verse the singular of the word
> for man is used.
> Likewise for beast, etc. It is man to beast to ... .
> There is no one
> plural word that could be used as the antecedent.
> That is why I concluded
> that all of these creatures together are the
> antecedent. At least this
> would be the case by rules of English grammar, but
> Hebrew grammar often
> seems strange to us, and so maybe a Hebrew expert
> can tell us whether a
> singular noun can be the antecedent of a plural
> pronominal ending on a
> Hebrew verb.
> Gordon Brown (ASA member)
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Received on Fri Aug 24 13:44:33 2007

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