RE: [asa] Land Animals and the Flood

From: Jon Tandy <tandyland@earthlink.net>
Date: Fri Aug 24 2007 - 13:40:07 EDT

Gordon,

Interesting observation, the verb tense I think could be explained either
way (plural referring to man and beast, or a change in tense to refer in the
plural to mankind only). I would still stand by what I said earlier, along
with the parallelism from a preceding verse ("it repented the Lord that he
had made man...it repenteth me that I have made them"), as well as a
complete lack of any hint in the larger context that the Lord was displeased
with either the animals or man's use of animals (e.g. idolatry). This isn't
to say that people weren't worshipping idols in the form of animals, I just
don't see any warrant in the text for the conclusion that the Lord was upset
at having "made them" (the animals).

Jon Tandy

-----Original Message-----
From: asa-owner@lists.calvin.edu [mailto:asa-owner@lists.calvin.edu] On
Behalf Of gordon brown
Sent: Friday, August 24, 2007 11:15 AM
To: Jon Tandy
Cc: asa@calvin.edu
Subject: RE: [asa] Land Animals and the Flood

On Fri, 24 Aug 2007, Jon Tandy wrote:

> You are assuming "them" at the end of the verse is referring to the
> immediate antecedant, "man, beast, creaping thing, fowls." However,
> in context this is written after Gen 6:1-7a has said:

In the Hebrew of this verse the singular of the word for man is used.
Likewise for beast, etc. It is man to beast to ... . There is no one
plural word that could be used as the antecedent. That is why I concluded
that all of these creatures together are the antecedent. At least this
would be the case by rules of English grammar, but Hebrew grammar often
seems strange to us, and so maybe a Hebrew expert can tell us whether a
singular noun can be the antecedent of a plural pronominal ending on a
Hebrew verb.

Gordon Brown (ASA member)

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Received on Fri Aug 24 13:40:32 2007

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