Re: [asa] Godel's theorem [Was: Re: Dawkins, religion, and children]

From: <mrb22667@kansas.net>
Date: Wed May 09 2007 - 12:22:03 EDT

It isn't so much that the model includes God after Godel as that it then fails
to exclude God as strongly. But this is only if the theorem is applied in the
wider sense (which is apparently objectionable to some). There will always be
the remaining gap requiring faith (in both directions), Godel or not.

--Merv

Quoting philtill@aol.com:

> I do believe in free moral agency (although like the rest of us I have no
> firm idea how it intersects with physics). But if we want to address
> materialism, then we must discuss their model, which omits free moral agency.
> IMO, their model implies through Godel's theorem an irreducible infinity of
> logic that lies at the origin of nature, and this implies the plausibility of
> faith in God. Then, having re-introduced God to their model, we can also
> re-introduce the notion of free moral agency. But this comes after Godel,
> not before, when we take this line of argument.
>
> Phil
>

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Received on Wed May 9 12:22:39 2007

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