Re: Seely's Views 2

From: gordon brown <gbrown@euclid.colorado.edu>
Date: Sun Sep 05 2004 - 20:26:23 EDT

On Sun, 5 Sep 2004, D. F. Siemens, Jr. wrote:

> As to what was created or formed, the Hebrew for 'heavens' is dual, which
> should specify that there are exactly two. Unless there are two heavens
> reasonably distinguishable, one must ask why God did not reform the
> language or find other terminology so as to be accurate. So it seems to
> me that God accommodated himself to the dual, and that neither of these
> verses is unambiguously accurate, expressing THE truth. If there is this
> accommodation to language, why is further accommodation ruled out?

Dave,

You have raised my curiosity about one aspect of the Hebrew language.
Maybe you or a Hebrew scholar can answer it for me. What is the
significance of a Hebrew word always being used in the dual or plural? I
think that this is true of the word for water. Also much has been made of
the plural nature of Elohim.

Gordon Brown
Department of Mathematics
University of Colorado
Boulder, CO 80309-0395
Received on Sun Sep 5 20:45:09 2004

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