From: Don Winterstein (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Feb 27 2003 - 10:28:50 EST
Iain Strachan wrote:
> We're not dealing with translations here, only the agreed Hebrew and Greek
> texts. It is harder to do this on the Greek text, where there are more
> variations, than on the Hebrew. But also if the original spelling was
> different (i.e. when the author wrote it down), I don't think that
> invalidates the phenomenon, or makes God incompetent. If a spelling
> made the patterns appear, then that rules out the idea that the original
> human writer did it deliberately.
Surely a precise rendering of the original is a major issue if you think God
might have been behind these numerical peculiarities. Or is God also behind all the scribal modifications? And if so, does that mean he wasn't able to get it right the first time? If one looks into the
matter, one finds that the original Hebrew text (OT) is known with far less certainty than
the original Greek (NT). Differences between the Masoretic
version and the Septuagint hint at deep problems lurking but now glossed over; and there are many reasons for textual uncertainty in the Masoretic besides those differences. Talk about weak rods to lean on!
The Muslims were smarter about this. They got rid of all variations at a really early stage, so now they can worship their Quran with confidence.
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