RE: An interesting essay for evangelicals

From: Alexanian, Moorad (
Date: Thu Jan 23 2003 - 10:35:46 EST

  • Next message: "Re: An interesting essay for evangelicals"

    One cannot be writing about divorce if one is not considering the notion of marriage. Therefore, one certainly has the definition of Christian marriage in those verses. I have often heard and read that the relationship of Christ to His apostles may have had certain homosexual leanings. I ask you, if such was the case wouldn’t Christ speak explicitly about such type of relationships and had condoned them and even given His blessings? Sometimes silence speaks tons of words! Moorad

            -----Original Message-----
            From: Robert Schneider []
            Sent: Wed 1/22/2003 11:00 PM
            To: Alexanian, Moorad;
            Subject: Re: An interesting essay for evangelicals

            Moorad writes:
    > I believe Jesus does address the issue of homosexuality in Mark 10:6-8
            “But from the beginning of creation, God MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE. FOR
            BECOME ONE FLESH; so they are no longer two, but one flesh.” Jesus
            certainly defines what Christian marriage is. So much for homosexual
            marriages! Also in the epistle to the Ephesians 5:22-33, Paul uses
            Christian marriage to teach the relationship of Christ to the Church, where
            Paul quotes the above verses, which are actually found in the Old Testament.
            Bob's reply:
                Moorad, I think these two quotations are perfect examples of taking
            verses out of context and then drawing illogical conclusions from them. The
            context of Jesus' allusion to Genesis 2:24 is a discussion on divorce, not
            same-sex relations; Jesus was stating that he deems Moses' permission of
            divorce was a concession to men's "hardness of heart," and goes on to say to
            his disciples later that to remarry after divorce is to commit adultery (in
            Matt. 19:9, Jesus is reported as making an exception for unchastity). If
            you were arguing that therefore Jesus was opposed to divorce, I could see
            your point. But to claim that he was addressing the issue of homosexuality
            is to read into his statement something that is not there. Sorry, but this
            argument is not logical. The same is the case for the statement about
            marital relations in the household code in Ephesians 5. To conclude that
            this writer was implying a negative judgment about same-sex relations by the
            mere fact that he is making statements about the relations between husbands
            and wives is to draw an erroneous conclusion. This is aside from the fact
            that enduring same-sex relationships as the equivalent to marriage were not
            a feature of the cultures of the Roman Empire of that time, as I stated in
            my note; therefore, it was not a concept that one should expect either Jesus
            or Paul to think about, or that the matter would have ever come up for
            discussion. I doubt very much it was in their minds when the one spoke and
            the other wrote.

    This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Jan 23 2003 - 10:36:17 EST