From: Hassell, Ian C. (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Oct 09 2002 - 05:01:14 EDT
Can anyone validate Jan's statement below? I believe I've read recently
that of the different usages of the word "day" in the OT, there is a
definite difference between literal and figurative. I don't have the
capabilities to research the Hebrew on this, but I'd be interested in other
I think Jim's question is worth some research.
From: Jan de Koning [mailto:email@example.com]
Sent: Tuesday, October 08, 2002 4:38 PM
Subject: Re: Who lied? Moses or God?
At 09:41 PM 07/10/2002 +0000, Jim Eisele wrote:
>Recently a question dawned on me. How do you reconcile a non-day-age
>or a non-YEC view with the OT? Exodus 20:11 and 31:17 both claim that
>God told Moses creation took six days.
>Some take the position that Gen One is not historical. How can you
>do that and not destroy the entire OT?
>Genesis in Question
The word used for day, is in other places or long periods of time. Even in
English: "the day of the industrial revolution." (Probably more often
used years ago, when I grew up.)
However, even then you run into difficulties. Therefor I believe, that
Gen. 1-11 is more an indication of what happened than an accurate
description in our modern sense of the word. Language use changes, as
anyone who studies history and for example ancient or medieval language use
Jan de K.
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