Mike wrote: "Isn't it possible that He
deliberately chose to use Hebrew words with broad enough meanings to permit
Gen. 1 to be understood in a "poetic" way by the ancient Hebrews, and then
later on be understood in a scientifically accurate way by modern people
possessing a knowledge of earth's history?"
I suppose that is a possibility. If true, it would imply that he had in mind
to deliberately confuse us. That, too, is a possibility, but one which I
don't think is worth while following.
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