>I have not had the time to follow much of this discussion. So, if what I am
>about to ask has already been asked and discussed, please forgive me.
Actually, your timing is quite good. I believe that it is important to
eliminate YEC. The most effective way to do this is to promote a day-age
understanding of Genesis One. Thank you for your valuable contribution.
>But isn't it possible that God deliberately chose to use the
>words which appear in Gen.1 for a dual purpose?
>Isn't it possible that He deliberately chose to use Hebrew words with
>broad enough meanings to permit Gen. 1 to be understood in a "poetic" way
>by the ancient Hebrews, and then later on be understood in a scientifically
>accurate way by modern people possessing a knowledge of earth's history?
Opposing arguments, IMNSHO, are absurd. They question the Lord's character.
>For instance, God could have deliberately chosen to use the Hebrew word
>to describe the creative time periods
Yes. It is absolutely critical to ask the question, "What was God's
"reasoning" for allowing certain wording.
Thanks for your post.
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