Still catching up on email from being away at the meeting...
Another example of a definite long yom, as far as I can tell from my reading of the concordance, is Lev. 25:8, in which the year of Jubilee follows a yom of 49 years.
Dr. David Campbell
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Lexington Park MD 20653 USA
"That is Uncle Joe, taken in the masonic regalia of a Grand Exalted Periwinkle of the Mystic Order of Whelks"-P.G. Wodehouse, Romance at Droigate Spa
---------- Original Message ----------------------------------
From: "D. F. Siemens, Jr." <email@example.com>
Date: Tue, 21 Aug 2001 15:42:44 -0700
>On Tue, 21 Aug 2001 14:25:38 -0600 (MDT) gordon brown
>> > Having worked through every
>> occurrence of
>> > _yom_, I can say that always with a numeral (apart from the
>> > occurences in Genesis 1) it clearly means either a 24-hour period
>> or the
>> > daylight portion thereof.
>> How is this clear in Hosea 6:2?
>> Gordon Brown
>From: "Stephen J. Krogh" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
>Date: Tue, 21 Aug 2001 16:03:41 -0500
>This argument is inconclusive. The Bible, after all, has no other
>to enumerate sequential epoch’s of time. This argument can be challenged
>several counts. For one, it is true only for passages describing days of
>human activity rather than divine activity. More importantly, no rule of
>Hebrew grammar states that yom attached to an ordinal must always refer
>24-hour days. Hosea 6:2 prophesies that “after two days He (God) will
>revive us (Isreal); on the third — ordinal — day, He will restore us.”
>centuries, Bible commentators have noted that the “day” in this passage,
>where the ordinal is used , refers to a year, years, or a thousand years,
>Stephen J. Krogh, P.G.
>Oops! I should have said that there is no numeral plus _yom_ that needs
>an extended period. I did not say that there was a rule, just usage.
>Language is replete with matters that do not run with rules--unless one
>erects a rule for every idiom. I will add that the "evening-morning" is,
>to me, a strong indication that a restricted period is in view. If you
>can give me the _termini a quo et ad quem_ for Hosea 6:2, we can
>determine whether this applies to a longer period-- assuming that the
>language is not poetical and symbolic. I can add that, while there are
>places where the singular term may refer to a longer period, they do not
>seem to require more than 24 hours. The closest thing to an exception
>that I have found is in the phrase "day of the Lord." If that refers to
>the initial day rather than the entire period, it fits the pattern I am
>suggesting. All the published examples I have seen, though my reading is
>limited, where an extended period is required, involve one of the plural
>I consider "days ... of divine activity" to be a red herring, especially
>since the order in Genesis requires Mark Twain's "spiral twist" to match
>the history of the universe and solar system, with further twisting to
>match the order of the second chapter. Psalm 90:4 and 2 Peter 3:8 do not,
>as naively argued, give us a measure of the divine day, but indicate
>God's timelessness. I other words, I consider process theology and its
>ilk as mistaken as the claim that human history will be 6000 years in
>length, with Christ's thousand-year rule matching the seventh day of
>rest. But this is getting off the topic.
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