Re: New genetic data and mankind's ancestry

From: gordon brown (gbrown@euclid.Colorado.EDU)
Date: Sat Mar 24 2001 - 16:59:16 EST

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    Peter,

    Proposing the existence of pre-Adamites solves a number of problems, but
    it seems to me that it also creates some. One is reconciling it with I
    Cor. 15:45. Another is having to believe that God waited thousands of
    generations before producing a man who began life in an unfallen state.

    Gordon Brown
    Department of Mathematics
    University of Colorado
    Boulder, CO 80309-0395

    On Mon, 19 Mar 2001 pruest@pop.dplanet.ch wrote:

    > You can have Jesus' genealogy go through Adam in a biological sense even
    > if there were 10,000 pre-Adamites living at the time of Adam. But
    > presumably you were thinking that all fallen humans (and this includes
    > all humans except Jesus) must have their biological genealogy go through
    > Adam. But the Bible does not imply the doctrin of the biological
    > inheritance of the so-called "original sin" (supposedly Adam's). Romans
    > 5:12ff contrasts Adam the head of the fallen humanity with Jesus Christ
    > the head of the new, spiritual humanity. In both cases, it is definitely
    > not biological inheritance that is in view. All believers, including
    > Abraham and many other Old Testament believers, belong to the new
    > humanity - but none of them descends from Jesus biologically; similarly,
    > all humans before, contemporaneous with, and after Adam belong to fallen
    > humanity, because "all have sinned", not because some of them
    > biologically descend from Adam. The text emphasizes the correspondence
    > between the old humanity and the new humanity, implying that the
    > relationship of fallen humanity to Adam is taken in the same spiritual,
    > not biological way as that of the new humanity to Jesus. The
    > significance of Jesus' genealogy is also (partly) biological, but its
    > primary impact is spiritual: it shows the fulfillment of prophecies
    > given to Adam, Abraham, and David, and Jesus' right to the throne of
    > David and his being the Messiah. Else why would the genealogy in Matthew
    > 1 go through Joseph (who was not Jesus' father in a biological, but in a
    > legal sense)?
    >
    >
    > What does Genesis 3:20 imply? Jesus is the representative of the new
    > humanity (both before and after his time). Adam is the representative of
    > the old, fallen humanity (both before and after his time). Abraham is
    > the father of all genuine believers (Gen.12:2-3; Rom.4:16), both
    > Israelites and gentiles (gentiles presumably both before and after his
    > time). Could Eve be the "mother of all living" in a similarly spiritual
    > sense (both before and after her time)? Probably, it should be related
    > to God's "proto-gospel" in Genesis 3:15, predicting that one of Eve's
    > descendants will be the Messiah, through whom all will live who believe
    > in him, without any consideration of inheritance.
    >



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