Re: Pi

From: george murphy (
Date: Thu Mar 01 2001 - 21:53:39 EST

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    John W Burgeson wrote:

    > I just ran across an interesting article on "pi in the Bible.'
    > It is at
    > Warning -- it is "scholarly" and not easy reading.

            This is indeed interesting & scholarly but there's a huge
    logical jump involved. Essentially the argument is that in I Kg.7:23
    the Masoretic text has the word QVH, "line", but it's to be read QV.
    (There are a number of examples of this in the Hebrew Bible. On this
    see the footnote in _Biblia Hebraica_.) Now the numerical value of QVH
    = 100 + 6 + 5 = 111 while that of QV = 100 + 6 = 106. The ratio of the
    these is 111/106 = 1.04717, and if you multiply this by the value of pi
    gotten from a straightforward reading, 3, you get 3.1415, which is a
    good approximation.
            OK - but WHY are the two numerical values to be combined in this
    way & multiplied by 3?
    The authors of this article don't attempt to give a reason. (At least I
    didn't see one in my quick reading.) Absent some rationale for this, I
    can't see the result as anything more than a coincidence.



    George L. Murphy
    "The Science-Theology Dialogue"

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