YEC's claim that yom in connection with an ordinal number always refers
to a 24 hour period. I have discussed this with my pastor, who IS NOT a
YEC advocate, and is not merely a seminary graduate, but has a PhD in
theology. He has told me that his own studies of the word indicate that
the YECs may be right in this case - yom used in conjunction with an
ordinal number is a 24 hour period. I have read a few responses to
this claim, but none of them seems to me to be watertight. I guess I
have not yet heard a credible refutation of this claim.
Can anyone on the list address this issue? Is there an instance
anywhere of yom and an ordinal not referring to a 24 hour period? How
times does the bible use yom and an ordinal together? Can we look at
extrabiblical Hebrew literature and get a reliable answer to this
David Campbell wrote:
> >Another passage in the
> >> Pentateuch requiring a non-24 hour rendition is the description of
> the year
> >> of Jubilee-it follows a day of 49 years.
> >> David C.
> >I confess I hunted through concordances and dictionaries for the
> >reference, without success. Could you be more specififc please? I
> find it
> >most interesting.
> As it might be difficult for others to locate, too, the reference was
> Leviticus 25:8. Unless you have a very literalistic translation, yom
> likely to be rendered "time", "period", or the like.
> It is also translated "year" in several places in some translations,
> usually in the phrase "many years". Obviously, many years is also
> days, so one could apply a 24 hour interpretation in these passages.
> David C.