Re: Did man originally speak a single language?
Mon, 2 Nov 1998 04:36:33 EST

In a message dated 11/1/98 6:21:59 PM Pacific Standard Time, Gordon said,

<< I don't think that it is at all clear that the traditional interpretation
of Genesis 11:1-9 is the correct one. The word earth (or world) in vs. 1
is the Hebrew 'erets, which is translated `land' in most of its
occurrences. Thus Gen. 11:1 might be saying that the whole country used
the same language. >>

Since nearly all exegetes from the beginning right up to the present have
understood the Bible to be saying that all mankind was speaking the same
language at the time of the tower of Babel (and I believe that is the
contextual meaning), one would need to make a case great enough to show that
the vast majority of the Church past and present have been mistaken in their
understanding. I do not believe Sailhammer has made such a case.

I have recently finished a paper on the tower of Babel showing that neither
the YEC's nor the concordists (like Sailhammer) have an adequate solution to
the conflict which exists between Gen 11:1-9 and the archaeological data; and
I offer a solution which I believe is more viable. If anyone would be willing
to send me criticism before I submit the paper for publication, I would be
glad to send it to anyone giving me their snail mail address or informing me
that their e-mail will accept attachments.

Paul Seely