>Your positioning of Adam was at 5.5 mya which would place him at the
>head of all the non-ape precursors to mankind including the
>The distinction you make here of A robustus not being on "the direct line
>to humans," puts your Adam in the dubious position of fathering non-humans
>(or sub-humans). Or am I missing something?
Genesis 6:1-6 (English-NIV)
1 When men began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were
born to them, 2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were
beautiful, and they married any of them they chose. 3 Then the LORD
said, "My Spirit will not contend with  man forever, for he is mortal
; his days will be a hundred and twenty years." 4 The Nephilim were
on the earth in those days--and also afterward--when the sons of God
went to the daughters of men and had children by them. They were the
heroes of old, men of renown. 5 The LORD saw how great man's wickedness
on the earth had become, and that every inclination of the thoughts of
his heart was only evil all the time. 6 The LORD was grieved that he
had made man on the earth, and his heart was filled with pain.
Could this section of Genesis be talking about "Adam's race" mateing
with non-humans or sub-humans (what ever that means)? Mabey God created
Adam and his race -- the sons of God at the same time He was allowing
the evolution of Australopithicines etal -- the daughters of man. The
flood at 5 mya would have wiped out the daughters of man and left just
the sons of God to continue the race.
Any Hebrew scholars out there? What terms are used for sons of God and
daughters of men? Are either of these terms used directly for Adam?