Does the Bible Address homosexuality?
Tue, 13 Aug 1996 15:53:36 GMT-5

I have been monitoring the communications about 'whether the Bible
speaks about and to ... homosexual relationships'. I would like to
point to two Bible verses:

1. Leviticus 18:22 - "You shall not lie with a male as one lies
with a female; it is an abomination. (NAS). The Hebrew word
translated "male" is ZAKAR, as opposed to the more generic word for
man, 'ISH. The word for female is the feminine equivalent,
'ISHSHAH, signifying the entire sex of females (i.e., womankind).
To lie is from the root, SHAKAB, meaning to cohabit, lodge with, and
to lie down. SHAKAB is used in Genesis as a euphemism for sexual
intercourse (e.g., Gen 19:32-35; Gen 30:15-16, Gen 34:2,7). A
literal translation of Lev. 18:22 might read, "You (men) shall not
lie down for sexual activity with male persons as (you) would lie
down for sexual activity with womankind, for it is as morally
disgusting as idolatry (as abomination, TO' EBAH, is translated).
And we all know how God felt about idolatry.

2. Romans 1:27. "and in the same way also the men abandoned the
natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one
another, men with men committing indecent acts ... " (NAS). The word
translated, 'function', is the Greek word, CHRESIS, from the root,
CHRAOMAI (to furnish what is needed by the use of another person).
CHRESIS has the meaning, "the employment of the body, specifically,
sexual intercourse (Strong's Hebrew/Greek Dictionary). The word for
'men' is ARSENES, as opposed to the more generic, ANTHROPOS,
specifying it is males that pushed away (APHIEMI, an intense form of,
to push away) the natural (PHUSIKOS, instinctive, from which we get
physical), sexual use (CHRESIS) of the woman (THELUS, female sex) and
who burned (EKKAIO, to inflame, to burn deeply) in their desire
(OREXIS, to long for, mental excitement) for each other. These males
performed indecent acts (ASCHEMOSUNE, by implication, using the
external sexual organs). The Bible goes on to state that God
recompensed these males (and females from 1:26) for their error
(PLANE, straying from orthodoxy, a delusion).

These 2 verses show that, in the original language, the Bible speaks
very clearly and specifically about homosexual acts - no mention is
given whether the acts were between monogamous partners or not. In
fact, by implication, the activity alone is considered indecent,
repugnant, and an abomination to the author(s) of the Bible. The
question is not whether the Bible speaks about homosexual acts. The
question is whether or not a person believes the Bible is the Word
of God.

Incidentally, an editorial on the last page of Time magazine (a
decidedly secular publication) within the last 3 weeks discusses the
implications of homosexuality on society. The author asks the
question, "if society must change its opinion and accept
homosexuality as an acceptible lifestyle, how do we draw the line
against incest, polygamy, prostitution, and other taboo lifestyles?"
Think about it.

William M. Frix
Assistant Professor, Electrical Engineering
Box 3021
John Brown University
Siloam Springs, AR 72761
Phone: (501) 524-7466
FAX: (501) 524-9548