>belief. If it was not defleshing, then it was cannibalism, also a means
>obtaining the spirit of the deceased for your own use--a religious belief.
>(E. Carbonell et al, "Lower Pleistocene Hominids and Artifacts from
>Atapuerca TD6 Spain," Science 269(1995), p. 826-830.
How do they _know_ that this defleshing is anything to do with religious
practices? I recognise that it _could_ relate to religious practice, but
this seems like whistling in the wind to me. Where's the evidence for this
reconstruction? Is all modern cannibalism religiously linked? Has all
cannibalism always been religiously linked? Nice theory, but really...